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Equal employers vs equal opportunity employers

Comment comment by Brandon on 18 March 2008

How does a company prove themselves an equal opportunity employer given this status is not necessarily correlated with the makeup of their employees? In other words, it's completely possible for non-biased employer to have an employee base that is not even close to representing the populous - so do they simply audit the hiring processes?

Or, perhaps the distinction being sought is "equal employers" (i.e., removing the emphasis on opportunity)... which would be a very telling thing, in my opinion.

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RE: Equal employers vs equal opportunity employers by Anonymous :: NR0

How does a company prove themselves an equal opportunity employer given this status is not necessarily correlated with the makeup of their employees?

Exactly! Or even not demonstrated in the set of applicants for jobs, or people qualified in the labor force. Women and PC idiots in the affirmative action movement simply wanted to see at least 50% female in any employment category. To be otherwise was an indication that this was not an equal opportunity employer - no excuses. For a while the government backed these silly claims and would deny contracts to firms that were unable to demonstrate equal opportunity on this basis.

Discrimination on any basis other than competence is not only immoral but it is harmful to the company and so should be self correcting. I have no problem with it also being illegal, but a valid statistical analysis must be used to gather evidence of a breach.

Posted 18 March 2008, Hide, Parent, Reply