... and not the overwhelming support for Obama among those that share his skin color ...
Considering that blacks have a propensity for voting democrat already, there is very little evidence to show their trend is unusual. Had Obama been a Republican and received an overwhelming vote from the south, that would have been statistically significant.
Are you taking into account all of the votes for Obama, Clinton and Edwards were not for a Mormon?
Generally speaking, conservative religious affiliations will not vote democrat. As such, the alignment to party makes perfect sense. It's equally plausible the "other" 48% of the votes came from non-Mormons. If you total all those votes [406376] then Romney received 62% of Utah's vote which is coincidentally a match for the Mormon population. So it still stands to reason the votes he received are purely based on religion.
Which leads back to the original question - "whether or not the like minded Mormon influence also means that a hypothetically elected Romney would lead the nation as a Mormon or as a secular leader who happens to be Mormon."

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RE: Bidirectional Concerns of Influence
It's Mormon Republican going for Mormon Republican, and I'm guessing it would be Mormon Democrat going for Mormon Democrat. Perhaps there wouldn't be 90% for Harry Reid, but I'm sure there would be a lot higher percentage in Utah than elsewhere simply because people vote for candidates like them. (Also, I'm not talking about Reid in this race, but a hypothetical race in which he was in a similar position to Romney.)
Are you taking into account all of the votes for Obama, Clinton and Edwards were not for a Mormon? Why didn't those LDS Democrats cross party lines if they are solely concerned about religious affiliation?
Are you taking into account that McCain and Huckabee didn't campaign in the state and what impact that might have had?
Lastly, why, again, are we discussing this as being "cultish" and not the overwhelming support for Obama among those that share his skin color?
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